where −e and me are the charge and mass of the electron, Ψ is the ground-state wave function, and L is the angular momentum operator. The total magnetic moment is
where the spin contribution is intrinsically quantum-mechanical and is given by
The orbital magnetization M is defined as the orbital moment density; i.e., orbital moment per unit volume. For a crystal of volume V composed of isolated entities (e.g., molecules) labelled by an index j having magnetic moments morb, j, this is
However, real crystals are made up out of atomic or molecular constituents whose charge clouds overlap, so that the above formula cannot be taken as a fundamental definition of orbital magnetization.[2] Only recently have theoretical developments led to a proper theory of orbital magnetization in crystals, as explained below.
For a magnetic crystal, it is tempting to try to define
where the limit is taken as the volume V of the system becomes large. However, because of the factor of r in the integrand, the integral has contributions from surface currents that cannot be neglected, and as a result the above equation does not lead to a bulk definition of orbital magnetization.[2]
Another way to see that there is a difficulty is to try to write down the quantum-mechanical expression for the orbital magnetization in terms of the occupied single-particle Bloch functions|ψnk⟩ of band n and crystal momentumk:
where p is the momentum operator, L = r × p, and the integral is evaluated over the Brillouin zone (BZ). However, because the Bloch functions are extended, the matrix element of a quantity containing the r operator is ill-defined, and this formula is actually ill-defined.[3]
In practice, orbital magnetization is often computed by decomposing space into non-overlapping spheres centered on atoms (similar in spirit to the muffin-tin approximation), computing the integral of r × J(r) inside each sphere, and summing the contributions.[4] This approximation neglects the contributions from currents in the interstitial regions between the atomic spheres. Nevertheless, it is often a good approximation because the orbital currents associated with partially filled d and f shells are typically strongly localized inside these atomic spheres. It remains, however, an approximate approach.
A general and exact formulation of the theory of orbital magnetization was developed in the mid-2000s by several authors, first based on a semiclassical approach,[5] then on a derivation from the Wannier representation,[6][7] and finally from a long-wavelength expansion.[8] The resulting formula for the orbital magnetization, specialized to zero temperature, is
where fnk is 0 or 1 respectively as the band energy Enk falls above or below the Fermi energy μ,
A generalization to finite temperature is also available.[3][8] Note that the term involving the band energy Enk in this formula is really just an integral of the band energy times the Berry curvature. Results computed using the above formula have appeared in the literature.[9] A recent review summarizes these developments.[10]
The orbital magnetization of a material can be determined accurately by measuring the gyromagnetic ratioγ, i.e., the ratio between the magnetic dipole moment of a body and its
angular momentum. The gyromagnetic ratio is related to the spin and orbital magnetization according to
The two main experimental techniques are based either on the Barnett effect or the Einstein–de Haas effect. Experimental data for Fe, Co, Ni, and their alloys have been compiled.[11]
^Todorova, M.; Sandratskii, M.; Kubler, J. (January 2001), "Current-determined orbital magnetization in a metallic magnet", Physical Review B, 63 (5), American Physical Society: 052408, Bibcode:2001PhRvB..63e2408T, doi:10.1103/PhysRevB.63.052408